Q: What is Satan's Fate? Will he live forever, or will he cease to exist?

Published: February 6th, 2004

Much has been speculated as to the nature of Satan's ultimate fate. From all the available Scriptures, we can safely say that Satan will not repent, nor will he cease to exist.

To begin with, we want to quote from pages 51 and 52 of our free booklet, " Angels, Demons and the Spirit World":

Q: We are commanded in the Bible to remove all leaven from our houses during the Days of Unleavened Bread. Is it true that your understanding and the understanding of the Jews are different, as to what constitutes leaven that needs to be removed? If so, could you explain your position and the reasons for it?

Published: March 19th, 2004

We are glad to.

Q: Exodus 12:14 states that "this day shall be to you a memorial; and you shall keep it as a feast to the LORD." Some teach that this feast day or memorial, referred to in Exodus 12:14, describes the Passover. Is this correct?

Published: April 2nd, 2004

It is not.

Although the Passover is at times referred to as a feast day (compare Leviticus 23: 4-5), the Bible distinguishes between the day of Passover (on Nisan or Abib 14) and the seven Days of Unleavened Bread (on Nisan or Abib 15-21). [The first month of the year, in accordance with the Hebrew Calendar, is called Abib or Nisan. Abib, the original name, means "sprouting" or "budding." The name Nisan was adopted following the Babylonian captivity. The first month is comparable to the Roman calendar period of March-April, and begins, in Biblical terms, with a new moon.] Exodus 12:14 refers to the first day of Unleavened Bread (compare Leviticus 23:4, 6), NOT the Passover.

Q: As the oracles are given to the Jews, why don't we follow their example of keeping Passover on the same day that they do, rather than keeping it one day earlier?

Published: April 30th, 2004

We need to properly understand what exactly was given to the Jews -- what is meant with the word "oracles." In Romans 3:2, we are told that the "oracles of God" were committed to the "circumcision." At the same time, we are told that "their unbelief" did not make "the faithfulness of God" without effect (verse 3). The Greek word for "oracles" is "logion." It is also used in Acts 7:38; Hebrews 5:12; and 1 Peter 4:11. In all these passages, the oracles or "sayings" must originate from God. If something is being said or written which is contrary to God's Word, it does not constitute any longer the "oracles of God."

Q: In the Q&A Update #237 the statement is made, "Otherwise, we would be eating and drinking 'judgment' to ourselves, which might result in sickness and death ([1 Corinthians 11] verses 29-30)." Does this mean that by taking the Lord's Sacrifice in an unworthy manner, the consequences might result in physical sickness and death? Are we not all unworthy?

Published: April 7th, 2006

It is true that we are all "unworthy" in comparison with God the Father and the Sacrifice of Jesus Christ, but this is not what Paul is addressing. Rather, Paul speaks about the manner in which we partake of the Passover--and yes, if we partake of the Passover in an unworthy manner, and if we, especially, fail to discern the Body of Christ which was beaten for our healing from our sicknesses, then prolonged sickness and even death might be the consequence.

Q: Why do you teach that the bread during the annual Passover ceremony has to be unleavened?

Published: April 21st, 2006

To answer this question, we need to briefly describe the historical background.

Q: Why do you teach that only members of God's Church, who have been properly baptized, should partake of the symbols of bread and wine during the annual New Testament Passover service?

Published: May 5th, 2006

The Church's teaching is based on numerous principles and implications, as revealed in Scripture.

The Old Testament demands that no one who is uncircumcised is to participate at the Passover (Exodus 12:48). Even though physical circumcision is no longer a requirement for New Testament Christians, they are to be circumcised spiritually (Colossians 2:11-12; Romans 2:26-29). This can only occur through the indwelling Holy Spirit, which God gives us after proper baptism. And so, we read that Christ's disciples had been baptized (even though, in the extraordinary case of the eleven apostles, they had not yet received the Holy Spirit--they would receive it, however, on the Day of Pentecost).

Q: What does the Bible mean when it talks about the "synagogue of Satan"?

Published: June 16th, 2006

Actually, the term "synagogue of Satan" is used only twice in the Bible, namely in Revelation 2:9 and Revelation 3:9. Before analyzing these two passages in detail, let us first get some background:

The word "synagogue" is used in several places in the New Testament. The word is derived from the Greek word "sunagoge" and means, literally, a "bringing together." The Greek word "sun" means "together," and the Greek word "ago" means "to bring." (Compare "Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words," by W. E. Vine). Young's Analytical Concordance to the Bible defines it as a "place where people are led together." Although originally used for religious or other gatherings of Jews, the word was later also applied to religious or other gatherings of Christians.

Q: Why will Satan attempt a second coup to try to overthrow God?

Published: July 10th, 2009

The Bible does not say specifically why Satan will attempt a second coup, but it does give us several hints and indications which we might want to consider.

Prior to the physical creation, God brought into being the spirit world of angels. After God had created the physical universe and the earth, an archangel named Lucifer was placed over one third of the angels here on earth to beautify it. This was long before man was created with the ultimate potential to become a full-fledged member of the God Family. Nothing is said in the Bible that Lucifer or any of the angels had that same potential which would later be given to man.

Q: Does the Bible teach character development in angels?

Published: July 31st, 2009

In our last Q&A, we discussed the fact that God is creating His holy and righteous character in man, as it is His purpose to reproduce Himself in man--to enlarge His God Family through man. The same cannot be said about angels.

There is no indication in Scripture that it is--or has ever been--God's purpose to enlarge the Family of God--presently consisting of God the Father and God the Son, Jesus Christ--through angels. Rather, angels are created beings; they are all "ministering spirits sent forth to minister for those who will inherit salvation" (Hebrews 1:14).

Q: If Satan cannot heal, how do you explain "miraculous healings," which apparently do not originate with God?

Published: August 20th, 2010

In our last Q&A, we explained that God did not give Satan or his demons the power to heal human beings. In this Q&A, we want to explain "miraculous healings," "caused" by Satan, which, upon further scrutiny, prove to be not true healings at all.

In our free booklet, "Angels, Demons and the Spirit World," we wrote the following in Part 2, "The World of Demons," on pages 42-44, 51: