Q&As

Questions and Answers

Halloween

Q: The United States and many other nations celebrate Halloween on October 31. Some feel that a Christian should not participate in such celebrations. What is your point of view?

A: The Bible is very clear that a true Christian must not, under any circumstances, celebrate Halloween.

Halloween has its origin in pagan and occult worship services and ceremonies. It was later “adopted” by the Catholic Church which gave it a “Christian” mantle. However, its Satanic and demonic rites remained and can still clearly be noticed even in today’s Halloween
customs.

The Encyclopedia Britannica, 1959, has this to say about “Halloween”:

“…the occasion shows clear connections with the religion of the Druids in pre-Christian Ireland and Scotland. The Celtic year ended on October 31, the eve of Samhain, and was celebrated with both religious and agrarian rites. For the Druids, Samhain was both the ‘end of summer’ and a festival of the dead. The spirits of the departed were believed to visit their kinsmen in search of warmth and good cheer as winter approached… Divination and auguries for the new year were practiced at Samhain. These magical practices concerned such questions as who would die during the next year… It was…

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Does the Bible teach anything about the use of tattoos?

It sure does. Although tattooing our bodies is extremely popular amongst many peoples and even in our Western society, including amongst sailors, marines, teens and others, the Bible clearly prohibits this practice.

Leviticus 19:28 tells us:

“You shall not make any cuttings in your flesh for the dead, nor tattoo any marks on you: I am the LORD.”

The translation “tattoo” is an accurate rendering of the original Hebrew. The Authorized Version states, “…nor print any marks upon you.” The intended meaning is “tattoo” or “tattoo marks.” The New International Version states, “Do not cut your bodies for the dead or put tattoo marks on yourself.” The Revised Standard Version states, “You shall not make any cuttings in your flesh on account of the dead or tattoo any marks upon you.” The Revised English Bible states, “You must not gash yourselves in mourning for the dead or tattoo yourselves.” Compare, too, Moffat, the New American Bible, the New Jerusalem Bible, and the Elberfelder Bible.

The Hebrew word, translated as “tattoo,” is “qa’aqa.” Strong defines it under Number 7085 as an “incision” or “gash” or a “mark.” The Interlinear Bible Hebrew-Greek-English edition by Jay P Green Sr uses the word “tattoo” as a literal…

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Could you explain which day was the "last day, that great day of the feast," as spoken of in John 7:37? Some say that this was a reference to the "seventh day" of the Feast of Tabernacles, while others claim that it was the "eighth day."

A: We read in John 7:37-39, “On the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, ‘If anyone thirsts, let him come to Me and drink. He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’ But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, [which] those believing in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.”

We read in verse 2 that the Holy Days that were celebrated at that time evolved around “the Feast of Tabernacles.”

Several commentators feel that the reference to the “last day, that great day of the feast,” applies to the seventh day of the Feast of Tabernacles. For instance, Edward Chumney, “The Seven Festivals of the Messiah,” points out the following on pp. 173-174:

“‘Hoshana Rabbah (literally, the great hosanna or the numerous hosannas) is the seventh day of sukkot (Tabernacles)… It has some special rituals and customs that make the day more like a full festival day than any of the intermediate days… On the seventh day of the feast, the people circled the altar seven times… Yeshua’s [Jesus’] statement in…

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Q: Would you please explain 1 Kings 15:5?

A: 1 Kings 15:5 reads, “…David did what was right in the eyes of the LORD, and had not turned aside from anything that He commanded him all the days of his life, except in the matter of Uriah the Hittite.”

The account of David’s transgressions “in the matter of Uriah the Hittite” can be found in 2 Samuel, chapters 11 and 12. First, David committed adultery with Uriah’s wife, Bathsheba; then, he tried to cover up his sin in different ways; failing that, he had Uriah murdered in war, so that he could take Bathsheba to become his wife. We read that “the thing that David had done displeased [or better: “was evil in the sight of”] the LORD” (2 Samuel 11:27). Later, after David came to his senses and realized what he had done, Nathan the prophet communicated God’s words to David: “Why have you despised the commandment of the LORD, to do evil in His sight? You have killed Uriah the Hittite with the sword; you have taken his wife to be your wife, and have killed him with the sword of the people of Ammon. Now therefore, the sword shall never depart from your house, because you…

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Q: You recently addressed the question whether a Christian should observe Mother's Day. What about the observance of Father's Day? Don't they belong together? If we don't keep the one, should we still keep the other?

A: Our Question and Answer section in Update #100 (July 4, 2003), explained the facts pertaining to the ancient and modern origins of Mother’s Day. We emphasized that it is a Christian’s personal decision to determine whether the evidence presented was “sufficient or not to establish a direct and immediate connection between pagan origins, Catholic Church influence, and our modern custom of celebrating Mother’s Day — especially in the United States, Canada and continental Europe.”

The same will have to be said regarding the observance of Father’s Day. One source (“About,Inc.”) describes the modern origin of Father’s Day in this way: “The modern origin of Father’s Day in the United States is not clear. Some say that it began with a church service in West Virginia in 1908. Others say the first Father’s Day ceremony was held in Vancouver, Washington. The president of the Chicago branch of the Lion’s Club, Harry Meek, is said to have celebrated the first Father’s Day with his organization in 1915; and the day that they chose was the third Sunday in June, the closest date to Meek’s own birthday! Regardless of when the first true Father’s Day occurred, the strongest promoter of the holiday was…

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Q: Is there any historical proof that Jesus Christ really existed?

A: Very few educated people doubt the existence of Christ. There are more than 1,000 works of literature written very early in Church history affirming the existence of Christ. Much of it was written by pagans or Jews.

H.G. Wells wrote in “Outline of History”: “…one is obliged to say, ‘Here was a man. This part of the tale could not have been invented.'” Will Durant, professor of philosophy and a non-Christian, wrote extensively about Christ’s existence and His effect on society in “The Story of Our Civilization.” The Encyclopedia Britannica refers to Christ more than 20,000 times; more than Socrates, Aristotle, Buddha, Napoleon, Confucius, Mohammed, or Shakespeare. It says on one occasion, “These independent accounts prove that in ancient times even the opponents of Christianity never doubted the historicity of Jesus, which was disputed for the first time and on inadequate grounds by the end of the 18th, during the 19th, and at the beginning of the 20th centuries.”

John Singleton Copley, also known as Lord Lyndhurst, one of the greatest legal minds in British history, commented once in this way on the existence of Christ, His death, and His resurrection: “I know pretty well what evidence is: and I…

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Free From The Law?

Q: Would you please explain 1 Corinthians 9:20-21?

A: 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is one of those Scriptures that has been used by some for the support of their false claim that Paul no longer taught obedience to God’s law. This is, however, not at all what Paul was saying here.

Let us read, in context, the entire passage of 1 Corinthians 9:19-23:

“(Verse 19) For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a servant to all, that I might win the more; (verse 20) and to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews; to those who are under the law, as under the law, that I might win those who are under the law; (verse 21) to those who are without law, as without law (not being without law toward God, but under law toward Christ), that I might win those who are without law; (verse 22) to the weak I became as weak, that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some. (verse 23) Now this I do for the gospel’s sake, that I may be partaker of it with…

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Q: Please explain what Christ means with the "open door" in Revelation 3:8. Is that door still open today, or has it been shut?

A: In Revelation 3:7-8, Christ tells the angel of the church in Philadelphia: “These things says He who is holy, He who is true, ‘He who has the key of David, He who opens and no one shuts, and shuts and no one opens’: … ‘See I have set before you an open door, and no one can shut it.'”

Whatever that open door is, it is still open for those who belong to the church in Philadelphia. “The church in Philadelphia” is mainly a reference here to faithful Christians who have developed in their lives a “Philadelphian spirit” or attitude — as applied to us today, it does not refer to a specific local church or particular organization. Those are simply Scripturally wrong who claim that they — as an organization — are THE remnant of the Philadelphia era. Christ makes clear that it is He who opens and shuts. To the church in Philadelphia, He specifically says, “I have set before YOU an open door, and NO ONE can shut it.”

What is this open door?

(1) At least four Scriptures explain that the term “open door” refers to the ability of the church in Philadelphia to preach the gospel in…

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Q: Is it wrong or unbiblical to declare bankruptcy?

A: We should realize that members over the years, in following Church teaching, have declared bankruptcy. Bankruptcy is a recognized and legal means in this world to free oneself from debts, under certain circumstances. Court decisions have been rendered, involving Church members, dealing with questions regarding tithes and offerings in bankruptcy procedures. Certain state laws allow churches to keep tithes, up to a certain amount and percentage, which were received from members who subsequently filed for bankruptcy.

More importantly, the Bible endorses the concept of declaring bankruptcy in certain circumstances. What is the biblical basis for the Church’s long-standing teaching that the declaration of bankruptcy is not against Scripture, under certain circumstances?

We have always taught that bankruptcy is not to be taken lightly, but that it is a very serious matter. Normally, a person should do everything he or she can to pay back any debts incurred by him (2 Kings 4:7), or to at least try to arrange an extension of time with the creditors. There are unforeseen circumstances, however, which justify and sometimes even necessitate the declaration of bankruptcy. These circumstances might involve debts incurred in a business transaction, inherited debts, unexpected debts, or even incorrect allegations, falsely claiming…

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I noticed that you use the expression, "We must accept Jesus Christ as our personal Savior." This expression is used by many Protestant churches, to say that Christ accepts us as we are, without any need on our part to change. I know that you don't teach that, but wouldn't it be better to avoid using the expression to "accept Christ as our personal Savior"?

It is, of course, true that the Bible teaches that we must change, and that Jesus Christ does not accept us “as we are.” Our new booklet, “Baptism — a Requirement for Salvation?” explains in detail that we must repent BEFORE Christ accepts us — and, before we can properly “accept” Him.

The mere fact that some misuse and misapply a certain Biblical term is not enough reason for us not to use it. For instance, many preach a wrong gospel message (compare Galatians 1:6-9), or even a false “Jesus” (compare 2 Corinthians 11:4). This does not mean, however, that God’s Church should therefore refrain from using the terms “gospel” or “Jesus.”

In regard to the expression, “accepting Jesus Christ as our personal Savior,” the Church has used similar language for a long time (as it has used, of course, the terms “gospel” or “Jesus” for a very long time). As early as 1948, Mr. Armstrong wrote about “our acceptance of [Christ’s] death, burial and resurrection,” and our belief “on Jesus Christ as personal Savior.” (Compare WCG’s old booklet on water baptism, copyrighted 1948, 1954, and 1972, pp. 11 and 15.)

These expressions are Biblical. We understand, of course, that believing on Christ…

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